In Romans 11, Paul finishes explaining Isreal's current position with God in light of the coming of the Gospel. In v. 1 Paul states emphatically that God has not rejected the Isrealites, explaining that it could not be so since Paul himself is a Christian and also of Isreal. Calvin states that this is because adoption is dependent solely on God, and not on men, with which Luther agrees in his introduction. Paul then quotes 1 Kings 19:10, and draws a parallel between that time and his. Elijah despaired becaused it seemed to him that all had turned away from God. However, God informs him that not all have turned, and that God has reserved a remnant among Isreal who did not bow down to the false god Baal. In much the same way, there is a remnant among Isreal who believes in Christ (v. 6) that was chosen by God's grace and not works.
--Why is it in accordance with God's character that He has chosen not to reject the people of Isreal?
--Calvin states that only those Christians who are chosen by God (the elect) shall end up being saved, pointing out that though circumcision was a sign of the covenant between Isreal and God, it was only an outward sign that was ineffectual without faith. Calvin goes on to say that the only reason for God's electing some persons and not others simply because it is God has willed it to be so, for if he chose on the basis of who He knew would accept or who is most moral, then it would be based on works. This is something Calvin states God chose to do with His creation before the foundation of the world. Is believing in something a work?
--Wesley states that this passage, in particular v. 5, must be read in light of Romans 3:22, which states that the righteousness from the Gospel comes to all who believe. God's purpose is that all who believe will be saved, and this is the remnant chosen by grace. If God offers salvation to all, and man decides whether to believe in God, can God be assured that his purpose of having a remnant will be fulfilled? Does the concept of foreknowledge, which Wesley believed in, provide an answer?
Paul writes in v. 7, that the righteousness before God that Isreal attempted to achieve through works was instead obtained by the elect, while others were hardened. Paul then quotes passages from the O.T. to prove his point. He first quotes Deut 28:4, and Isa: 29:10, to the effect that the people of Isreal still do not truly understand the purposes and desires of God, and also quotes David from psalm 69 to the same effect. Paul is once again making the point that the chosen people have a long history of not understanding or obeying God.
--Wesley states that those whose hearts are hardened are in that state because of their own willful blindness. How does God harden hearts? Does He make the creature do evil? Does he withdraw His restraint?
Isreal has not fallen to the point that they cannot be redeemed (v. 11), rather God has used their rejection (of Christ) to bring salvation to the Gentiles and thus make Isreal envious. And since God has used evil to do good, how much more good will abound once Isreal comes to God (v. 12). Paul states that part of the motivation of his ministry to the Gentiles is to provoke his own people to have faith in Christ. (v. 13-14). Paul then appears to tie in the acceptance of Christ be Isreal with life from the dead. Whether this means that the dead nation of Isreal will eventually believe in Christ and become alive, or that all Isreal will believe when the resurrection of the dead occurs is not clear. Wesley states that v. 16 is a use of metaphor to indicate that the remnant of Isreal that believes will eventually lead to all of Isreal believing.
--Does the concept of provoking Isreal to envy and thus acceptance of Christ make sense in a Calvinist worldview whereby God alone decides who will believe in him? Does an Arminian view of salvation allow it to be possible for God to make the claim that all Isreal will believe? What does the faithfulness of God to Isreal reveal about His character?
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