1) In verse 14, Paul asks a question in light of God choosing Issac and Jacob to receive the covenant blessings he began through Abraham. The question is whether God is unjust for having chosen one person over the other. It occurs to me that there are two objections that Paul may be addressing here. The first possible objection is "why doesn't God shower his grace upon all peoples?" In context of the passage however, it appears more likely that the issues are "has God's covenant with us failed, and aren't all Isrealites part of the kingdom of God since they are part of the community with which God has covenanted" (see verses 6 and 7). Paul cites the election of Issac and Jacob as examples to answer the objections regarding Isreal. God chose Issac and Jacob to receive the covenant blessing as a means of fulfilling his purposes. So we see God chosing to favor certain persons as a means of enacting the covenant, not causing it to be breached on God's side. As verse 15 tells us, God chooses to give his grace to those he wants to. We cannot dictate to God who will receive it. (v. 16) God's mercy does not depend on how much we want it or on our efforts to get it, but rather on God's forgiveness. As Wesley stated, the will of man is opposed to God's grace.
--Since God has decided to enact his purposes largely through man in the course of history, is it inevitable that he would purpose that certain men would receive blessing?
In verse 17, Paul cites the example of Pharoah in Egypt, who is told by God (through Moses) that he has been raised up to power in order that God might show his power, and that the peoples of the Earth would become aware of the His existence. Mission certainly accomplished by God, as the account of the Exodus is famous around the world. As Paul puts it (v 18) God has mercy on those He want to, and hardens those he want to. Wesley stated that in order to display His power, God rose to the throne in Egypt the most obstinant and proud man possible, but not a man whom God had made that way. In doing this, the punishment he received was more than just.
--If God created a person for the purpose of doing evil, and he does so, does that make God the author of evil? Explain your answer.
3) In verse 19, Paul anticipates an objection that the Isrealites might have to his argument. The objection is that if God has purposed for certain people to object Him and certain to accept, then how can we be held accountable, for who can resist God's will? In response, Paul quotes passages from Isaiah stating that the created should not question the will of the creator, just as the potter cannot be questioned by the pot for the way it was made, or the purposes it will serve. (v. 20-21). It is worth noting that in both examples from Isaiah, not only is the will of God being questioned, but also whether God sees the evil deeds of the people and will act.
Wesley states that God's dealings with us are invisible in some circumstances and clearly known in others. We cannot clearly see His purposes and working in things like when and where we live, our parents, our bodies and minds. These are ordered with perfect wisdom, but by rules we do not know. On the other hand, God has revealed to us clearly how he deals with us as our Judge--he rewards every man in accordance with his works. Those who believe are saved, those who do not believe aren't. Because of this fact, it is not tyrannical of God to furnish his mercy to some, because God offers his grace to those who accept His terms (Jer 18:7). From Calvin's point of view, God may harden an unbelieving man not only because He is sovreign, but also because that man would automatically be opposed to God because it is in man's nature to be so. As all men are opposed to God, it is not unjust for God to only choose some to receive His grace, because it would be just for God to punish every person who ever lived because that is what our sins have merited.
--Since God is sovreign and all powerful, is the fact that some come to God and others do not evidence that he has purposed for only some to come to Him? What is the role that free-will plays here?
4) Paul then presents a hypothetical in verses 22-29. What if, he asks, God bore with patience the objects of His wrath--prepared for destruction--as a means of showing his power? What if He did this in order to show the glory of His mercies to those he prepared in advance for glory? Paul cites examples from scripture that show God has chosen people both from within and outside the covenant community of Isreal to deal with. He points out that God has told the people in certain contexts that only a few of the community would be saved, and that if it were not for God's intervention, the community would have already merited destruction for its evil acts (and thus is not without blame or receiving an unjust "punishment").
--In verse 23, is Paul making the case that without seeing God's wrath, we would not be able to comprehend his grace? Does this mean that it is necessary for God to have allowed sin to exist?
In verses 30-33, Paul once again says that the Gentiles have received a righteousness that comes from faith, even though the outside world never sought to obey God's law. This has happened because Isreal as a community has not fully understood that what God desires is faith and trust in Him. A love of God, not mere obedience of rules. It is a stumbling block for them, and that is why they have failed to understand the life and purposes of Jesus Christ (v. 33).
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